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Did Mary, the mother of Jesus, marry her own dad?

Or did the translators make a mistake?

“… and Jacob begat Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.” Matthew 1:16

Strong’s Greek: 435. aner – a man.  biblehub.com/greek/435.htm abridged.

Unless Joseph sired Mary and waited till she matured to marry her, this can’t be the case. The word would have been better translated as father. It can be proved by counting the generations.

Not a big deal? No harm, no foul. Perhaps not,

But what of this example?

“Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is no other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved.”

Not so! Jehovah God is our only Savior:
(Jehovah) “there is no other God except me; a just God and a Savior; there is none beside me.” Isaiah 45:21
I am the Jehovah, your God from the land of Egypt, and you shall know no god but me: for there is no Savior beside me. Hosea 13:4 
God didn’t put His authority into a name. Were that the case, anyone with that name would have the power to forgive sins. He gave His authority to His Anointed.

It should read:

“Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other authority under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

No big deal? No harm, no foul? In this case there is harm and foul. The error has led to the development of hundreds, perhaps thousands of denominations based on this error. Wikipedia. 

                Are there other errors that aren’t harmless? That cause confusion?

Would you like to see for yourself?

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Updated 2/15/18